英语-2022年高考考前押题密卷（全国甲卷）（考试版）

2022年高考考前押题密卷（全国甲卷）

英语

本卷满分150分，考试时间120分钟。

注意事项：

1. 答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。

2. 回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。

3. 考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。

第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）

第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）

听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A 、B、 C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。

例：How much is the shirt?

A. £ 19. 15. B. £ 9. 18. C. £ 9. 15.

答案是 C。

1. Why does the man decide to go to work by subway?

A. It’s faster than driving.    

B. It’s more convenient.

C. It’s more comfortable.

2. What does the woman expect the man to do?

  A. Take out the rubbish. B. Clean the bedroom. C. Collect the dustbins.

3. Where does the conversation probably take place?  

A. At a hotel. B. At a laundry. C. At a clothing store.

4. What’s the possible relationship between the speakers?

A. Mother and son.  B. Manager and employee.

C. Teacher and student.

5. What does the man do?

A. An office clerk.   B. A shop assistant.   C. A politician.

第二节（共15小题，每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）

听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。

听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。

6. What does the man ask the woman to add?

  A. Some drinks. B. Fried eggs. C. Some rice.

7. How soon will the man get the takeout?

  A. In 20 minutes. B. In 25 minutes.      C. In 35 minutes.

听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。

8. How is the weather now?

A. Cloudy.    B. Rainy.     C. Sunny.

9. What does the West Lake have?

A. A free outdoor theater.  B. Two outdoor playgrounds. 

C. An indoor playground.

10. What will the couple do this evening?

A. Go to enjoy a live performance. 

B. Tell the children about the weekend plan.

C. Search for information about the park.

听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。

11. What did the woman do last week?

   A. She published a book. B. She attended an interview.

   C. She gave a speech to children.

12. Which of the following can be used to describe the middle children?

   A. Selfish. B. Peaceful. C. Independent.

13. What is the weakness of the youngest children in a family?

   A. They are aggressive.  

B. They’re not considerate.  

C. They are stubborn.

听第9段材料，回答第14至16题。

14. What does the man want to do on Saturday night?

A. Watch a movie with Jennifer. B. Go out with Rose.  

C. Go to a live concert.

15. Where is the restaurant?

A. On Palm Street. B. On 2nd Street. C. On Pine Street.

16. What time does the restaurant close on weekends?

A. At 9:00 p.m. B. At 9:30 p.m.        C. At 10:00 p.m.

听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。

17. When did the second Mud Festival take place?

A. In 1997. B. In 1998. C. In 1999.

18. What’s the difference between this year’s festival and the past ones?

A. It was held both online and offline.

B. Visitors could swim in the mud pool.

C. There was a music party on the beach.

19. Why is the mud here special?

  A. It has plenty of minerals.  B. It is from the eastern coast.

C. It helps stop skin disease.

20. Which aspect of the festival is the speaker talking about in the end?

  A. Its origin. B. Its purpose. C. Its future.

第二部分  阅读理解（共两节，满分40分）

第一节（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）

阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。

A

Discover all the great Sydney attractions. You’ll find many memorable things to do and fascinating museums to visit in Sydney, Australia.

Australian Museum

The Australian Museum (AM) was founded in 1827 and is well-known as the nation’s first museum. The AM has been transformed and visitors can now enjoy transformed spaces and updated facilities. Free general admission includes entry to all permanent exhibitions and Prehistoric Playground, which is open daily on Level 2 and features a variety of activities for children of all ages including a fossil（化石）lab and interactive dinosaur design station.

Art Gallery of New South Wales

Explore five levels of art at one of Australia's most popular art museums, located within beautiful parklands overlooking Sydney Harbour, just 10 minutes’ walk from the city.

See an extensive collection of Australian art, including one of the largest galleries of aboriginal（土著的）art in the country, alongside Asian treasures and leading local and international contemporary art.

Museum of Contemporary Art Australia - MCA

The Museum of Contemporary Art Australia is Australia's leading museum dedicated to exhibiting, interpreting and collecting contemporary art from across Australia.

Located at Circular Quay, the MCA is housed in the former Maritime Services building, a fine example of late Art Deco architecture.

Australian National Maritime Museum

Located at the waterfront of Darling Harbour, the Maritime Museum is an indoor/outdoor attraction and great entertainment for the whole family. The museum has one of the largest and most diverse in-water fleets (舰队) in the world. The museum hosts six permanent galleries, an ever-changing program of temporary exhibitions, and a 3D cinema, ensuring that there is something for everyone.

21. What is Australian Museum famous for?

A. The lowest price. 

B. Contemporary art.

C. Outdoor attractions.

D. The longest history.

22. Where should you go if you want to appreciate treasures from Asia?  

1. Australian Museum.     
2. Art Gallery of New South Wales.

    C. Australian National Maritime Museum.        

D. Museum of Contemporary Art Australia - MCA.

23. Which of the following can be seen in Australian National Maritime Museum？

A. A 3D cinema.

B. A design station. 

C. Local contemporary art.   

D. Late Art Deco architecture.

B

Simone Biles was born in 1997. Soon, her parents found that she couldn’t sit still. When she was 6 years old, her day-care group went on a field trip to a gym. Simone loved watching the gymnasts train and performances. She couldn’t just watch them, though—she had to try their moves. She was so good that one of the coaches sent a letter home with her, inviting Simone to take gymnastics classes.

Simone loved the classes, and she was excellent at climbing, swinging, jumping, and tumbling(翻筋斗). Though she had a lot to learn, the coaches could hardly keep up with Simone. When one girl performed a standing back tuck(翻折), Simone was sure she could do one too. Her coach didn’t believe her, so Simone tried the trick and made it on the spot.

At 9, Simone learned why she couldn’t sit still: She had ADHD (多动症). Her brain moved fast and her body did too — which made it hard for her to concentrate in school but which also made her an amazing gymnast. “The challenges we face help define who we are,” Simone wrote. “My challenge is also my superpower.” Simone’s superpower would help make her one of the most dynamic gymnasts ever seen.

Simone is one of the greatest athletes in history. At age 16, she won two gold medals at the Artistic Gymnastics World Championships(AGWC), including the all-around (the total score from competing in all events). She has now won 25 world medals, 19 of them gold. That’s the most in world gymnastics history.

Simone competed in her first Olympics in 2016. She was the first female U.S. gymnast to win four gold medals in an Olympic Games. Since then, Simone has debuted(首次呈现) some moves never successfully done in world competitions, including a double-double dismount(下马) from the balance beam.The move became known as the Biles. Several signature moves have been named after Simone.

24. Who found Simone Biles’ gymnastics talent?

A. Her parents.   B. A tour guide.  

C. A gymnastics coach.  D. Her kindergarten teacher.

25. What brought Simone the gift of gymnastics?

A. A disease.    B. An accident.  

C. A superpower.   D. A family tradition.

26. Which is one of Simone Biles’ achievements?

    A. She has now won 25 world gold medals.

B. Some competitions are named after Simone.

C. She won two gold medals at AGWC in 2013.

D. She competed in her first Olympics at 21.

27. Why are some signature moves named after Simone Biles?

    A. She made those moves well-known worldwide.

B. She has won the most World Championship medals.

C. She created and owned the gymnastics skills by herself.

D. She used the actions for the first time internationally.

C

It’s been a roller coaster ride for pets during the pandemic(疫情). All of a sudden, their families were home 24/7. While people got fascinated with cleaning, baking, and keeping themselves entertained, curious dogs and cats sometimes ended up getting hurt by these new habits.

The increase in these new pastimes saw a corresponding increase in the number of pandemic-related pet poisonings. “Our call volume has more than doubled since pre-pandemic. This is likely due to several factors including pets getting into more things at home simply because their people are doing more things at home,” says Dr. Ahna Brutlag. “Overall chocolate still remains our number one toxin(毒质), at least for dogs, but we were surprised to see how each of those listed increased relative to pre-pandemic times. We regularly see these types of cases, but we saw a surge of them during the pandemic.”

Although many pet owners look for eco-friendly cleaning products to keep their pets safe, there was a 92% increase in pet poisonings from cleaning products. Besides using eco-friendly cleaning products, there are things you can do to keep your pets safe at home, pandemic or not. “Pets are like kids. They are opportunists and will readily consume items left around the house,” Brutlag says. She suggests that pet owners think about pet-proofing their homes in the same way that parents kid-proof their homes in order to keep dogs and cats from getting into things that can hurt them. “Also, don’t underestimate how good their noses are and how high they can jump! They are experts at smelling food on a countertop and then finding a way to access it,” Brutlag says.

And if you think that your pet has had something potentially dangerous, reach out to your veterinarian or the helpline quickly. In potential poisoning cases, she points out, time is critical.

28. What phenomenon is described in the first paragraph?

A. Pets prefer to play the roller coaster ride.

B. Working at home is a fashionable tendency.

C. The changes of people’s life style influence pets.

D. It’s hard for people and pets to live harmoniously.

29. What does the underlined word “surge” in paragraph 2 mean?

A. Sharp decline.  B. Sudden increase.  C. Steady balance.   D. Rapid change.

30. What can we learn about pets from paragraph 3?

A. Eco-friendly cleaning products can keep pets safe.

B. Dogs and cats are usually under their owners’ control.

C. Protecting pets is more difficult than protecting kids.

D. Food is easily accessible to pets at home.

31. What is the text mainly about?

A. Pets need more love and care.          B. Pet poisonings increase at home.

C. A survey on pets during the pandemic. D. People’s fascinations with housework.

D

In today’s youth culture, it seems as if teens are permanently glued to their cellphones, constantly receiving beeping, buzzing and blinking social media notifications (通知). We often hear of the harm of social media to teens and young people, but our latest research on young girls and boys has revealed that social media is not always negative.

In some cases, we found that social media can positively influence their health and well-being, by helping them learn about healthy eating or new workouts to try. Besides, social media provides space for young people to talk to each other about issues of health.

For our study, conducted by researchers from the University of Birmingham and Orebro University, we invited over 1,300 young girls and boys, aged 13-18, from ten UK schools. We were interested in better understanding how young people use social media, and how they feel it impacts their health and well-being. To do this, we selected 84 participants from the main sample and had them take part in small group interviews.

The results showed that social media often had a positive influence on young people’s motivation for being physically active and on their ability to make conscious diet choices. Social media also allowed them to access the information they found inspirational, and learn about different apps they could use to be physically active or monitor their progress. They reported that likes, comments, and views on their social media posts also helped them stay motivated to exercise.

Encouragingly, the young people we spoke to were also highly discerning users of social media. They thought carefully about the content they were engaging with online. For instance, the teenagers reported that they would often ignore content that had the potential to lead to harm, such as images or videos that presented unrealistic workouts or expectations for their bodies.

While the risks should certainly not be overlooked, our findings show that social media can have a positive effect on young people’s health and well-being. A benefit of social media is that it provides real-time, low-cost information, and support from their peers. Making young people use social media safely, critically and responsibly may thus help them continue to lead a healthy life.

32. What is the main finding of the latest research mentioned in the text?

A. Young people make better use of social media.

B. Teenagers use social media more than expected.

C. Social media proves beneficial to young people.

D. New evidence adds to the harm of social media

33. How did the researchers carry out their study?

A. They made thorough analyses at two universities.

B. They collected data from the database of ten UK schools.

C. They referred to the findings of several previous studies.

D. They conducted group interviews with young girls and boys.

34. The “discerning users” in Paragraph 5 probably refer to the young people who       .

A. have great freedom B. enjoy special privileges

C. show good judgment D. have an influence on others

35. What is the author’s advice for young social media users?

A. Making full use of their online time

B. Using social media in a smart way

C. Taking full responsibility for their health.

D. Keeping informed of low-cost information.

第二节（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）

根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。

Skiing is one of the most rewarding sports when done right. Before giving it a go, here are a few things worth considering before enjoying it.

You’re not alone. Nobody picks it up immediately first time around. You will fall a lot and you may even think about giving up.    36   Plus, there will always be someone around to pick you up and encourage you to try again.

   37    With the help from qualified ski instructors, beginners will feel comfortable, confident and ready to learn for they know that they are in safe hands. Taking your time is key to success in learning how to ski. As long as you are clear about your capabilities and needs you will be absolutely fine.

Prepare to ski for the first time.    38   Comfort and protection are essential for successful skiing so make sure that you are wearing the right clothing. Choosing the right pair of ski boots is very important to ensure that you pick up skiing techniques quickly and practice comfortably. Always have water with you when skiing as you should be hydrated(补水) at all times to keep your energy up.    39   

Many beginners are unsure if they are required to purchase skis themselves or if they can gain access to them on-site.    40   If you would rather purchase your own skis, we would recommend asking for advice from an expert on what type of ski suits you.

1. It is not difficult to learn how to ski.  
2. Most ski resorts will have skis available to hire.  
3. It is always best to be over-prepared than under.  
4. It may be handy to have a small backpack with you.
5. But your persistence and patience will pay off, we assure you. 
6. Your feet shouldn’t have any extra room that could let the boots slip off.
7. Most experienced skiers recommend drinking as much as 1 litre of water every 2

hours.

第三部分 语言知识运用（共两节，满分45分）

第一节 （共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）

阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。

Zhu Caiping, 73, started suffering mild cognitive impairment (认知障碍) three years ago. She found that anxiety, depression and even ____41____ herself became normal in her life. It was not until last year, after she became a restaurant ____42____, that her situation began to ____43____ dramatically.

The restaurant where she works is the Forget Me Not Cafe, which provides job ____44____ for elderly people with cognitive impairment. It has eight elderly employees like her, who take ____45____ to work with other waiters.

“I provide ____46____ services for guests, such as pouring water, serving and taking ____47____. I can now remember all the dishes on the ____48____.” said Zhu, who, like the other eight elder servers, comes to the restaurant three times a week and works three hours a day.

“The colleagues take good care of us. They never allow us to ____49____ hot dishes. The guests are also very _____50_____ of us, because sometimes we make mistakes,” she added.

She also participates in welfare activities _____51_____ by volunteers, which helps reactivate her brain. Zhu said. “What old people like me _____52_____ about most is that our brain stops working due to _____53_____. Now I’m really happy and confident because of being here.” With good public welfare and volunteer organizations, more people are _____54_____ about participating in helping. Together, they add to the _____55_____ of the city.

Understanding the painful difficulty of cognitive impairment, Zhu wants to ____56_____ more people. A 58-year-old woman was brought to the restaurant by her husband. “She _____57_____ said a word and was expressionless. I _____58_____ her to speak and communicate. After several months, she started to ____59_____ on food and talk to others. Helping more people like us is the _____60_____ of this restaurant and what I am eager to do most,” Zhu said.

41. A. looking down on  B. paying attention to 

C. taking care of D. putting up with

42. A. guest B. manager C. server D. owner

43. A. change B. improve C. decline D. emerge

44. A. information B. assessment C. schedules D. opportunities

45. A. steps B. actions C. turns D. aims

46. A. efficient B. essential C. convenient D. private

47. A. notes B. gifts C. order D. deposits

48. A. table B. bill C. shelf D. menu

49. A. cook B. deliver C. prepare D. purchase

50. A. skeptical B. aware C. ashamed D. tolerant

51. A. organized B. recommended C. discovered D. confirmed

52. A. hear B. complain C. hesitate D. worry

53. A. injury B. inactivity C. relaxation D. recovery

54. A. enthusiastic B. sympathetic C. particular D. curious

55. A. wealth B. prospect C. warmth D. reputation

56. A. help B. know C. accompany D. remember

57. A. barely B. eventually C. casually D. apparently

58. A. taught B. encouraged C. allowed D. required

59. A. depend B. focus C. comment D. reflect

60. A. reward B. chance C. system D. meaning

第二节 （共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）

阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。

China launched the Shenzhou XIII manned spacecraft    61   (successful) early on Saturday morning, carrying three astronauts who will stay inside the country’s Tiangong space station for six months. It is expected to become the    62   （long） space journey by Chinese astronauts,    63  (double) the time of their peers in the Shenzhou XII mission.

Wang Yaping is China’s second female astronaut to participate    64    a spaceflight. She will become the first Chinese woman to enter the Tiangong space station and conduct a spacewalk. Zhai Zhigang, the mission commander（指挥官）, is the country’s first astronaut     to take a spacewalk, having done so when he  65   (be) a mission commander during the Shenzhou VII mission in September 2008. Ye Guangfu is making his first journey to space.

The Shenzhou XIII crew is tasked with    66    wide range of missions, including performing two to three spacewalks    67   (install) a small robotic arm onto a larger one, verifying key procedures and technologies such as the manual control of the robotic arms and the robotic arm-assisted movement of station modules, checking the performance and    68   (capable) of devices inside the station, and testing support instruments for astronauts’ lives and work during long-term    69   (flight). They will conduct scientific experiments and technology demonstrations in space medicine, microgravity physics     70    other fields.

第四部分 写作（共两节，满分35分）

第一节  短文改错（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）

假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文，请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误，每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。

增加：在缺词处加一个漏字符号（Λ），并在其下面写出该加的词。

删除：把多余的词用斜线（\）划掉。

修改：在错的词下划一横线，并在该词下面写出修改后的词。

注意：1. 每处错误及其修改均仅限一词；

          2. 只允许修改10处，多者（从第11处起）不计分。

Dear Liu Fang,

Today the weather was wonderful, so I went out to the local park with some friends to fly kites. It seemed that half the city joined in us, so we had trouble find a good place to stand. But I felt so relaxing when we were done.

Over lunch, I was told that kites were invented by a man naming Mozi, who was something of a philosopher and worked hardly to bring peace between warring countries. He also created many clever inventions from wood. I think it is so wonderful that Mozi could invent something would bring relaxation and happiness to such many people. I never thought to yourself that something like kites needed a inventor.

Anyway, I have to do my homeworks. Talk to you later!

Love,

Peter

第二节　书面表达 （满分25分）

2022年北京冬奥会圆满结束了，苏翊鸣、谷爱凌等青少年冠军举世瞩目，为号召同学们向优秀同龄人学习，你校校报举行“与奥运冠军共成长”主题英文征文活动，请据此投稿，内容包括：

1.奥运冠军的共同点：全力以赴，追求卓越，永不言弃，等等。

2.如何做生活中的冠军？

注意：1.词数应为100左右；

2.可以适当增加细节，使行文连贯。

3.开头已给出，不计入总词数。

Growing up along with Olympic Champions

Many teenage champions have stood out in the Beijing Winter Olympics.

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