2021年秋季高一新生入学分班考试英语试卷 03（浙江卷）（原卷）

2021年秋季高一新生入学分班考试 03（浙江卷）

英语试卷

（满分150分，考试时间120分钟）

注意事项：                                            

1. 答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。

2. 回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。

3. 考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。

第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）

第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）

听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。

例：How much is the shirt?

A. £ 19. 15.     B. £ 9. 18.     C. £ 9. 15.

答案是 C。

1．How much does the man need to pay?

A．$7. B．$5. C．$12.

2．Where are the two speakers most probably talking?

A．At a bus stop. B．In a police station. C．In a backpack store.

3．What does Helen think of walking?

A．It’s boring. B．It’s exciting. C．It’s relaxing.

4．Who has a blue shirt?

A．Susan. B．Lucy. C．Mike.

5．Which club will Eric join?

A．The chess club. B．The sports club. C．The music club.

第二节（共15小题，每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）

　　听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。

听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。

6．What does the man do?

A．A doctor. B．A patient. C．A nurse.

7．What does the man advise the woman to do?

A．Look for a new job. B．Take some medicine. C．Change her breakfast habits.

听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。

8．What was the robot made of?

A．Silver. B．Steel. C．Wood.

9．How did Kate solve his problem at last?

A．By asking her friends. B．By herself. C．By surfing the Internet.

10．What’s wrong with the robot at last?

A．The wheels don’t move. B．It can’t make sound. C．The leg is broken.

听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。

11．Why does the man ask the woman about her weekend plan?

A．To help her with her science project.

B．To invite her to get together this Saturday.

C．To ask her to have a picnic by the river.

12．What does the woman have to do at 12:00 on Saturday?

A．Go to the dentist. B．Clean the house. C．Run around.

13．When will the woman meet with Julie?

A．1:00. B．1:30. C．2:00.

听第9段材料，回答第14至16题。

14．Where does the conversation probably happen?

A．At the police station. B．At a restaurant. C．At a supermarket.

15．Which of the following is TRUE?

A．The woman found a wallet under the table.

B．The man's friend paid for the lunch.

C．The man often leaves the wallet at home.

16．What will the man do first according to the conversation?

A．Call the police. B．Ask his friend. C．Go back home and check.

听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。

17．What do you need to do when you get angry easily?

A．Sing loudly. B．Chat with a friend. C．Control your feelings.

18．What will happen if you get angry with people?

A．Nobody will wait for you. B．You may lose friends. C．You may get into trouble.

19．What does the book mainly tell us?

A．How to keep cold. B．How to show feelings. C．How to stay calm.

20．You should only get angry when ________.

A．a baby falls over  B．someone is watching you  C．you are sure it's the right thing to do

第二部分阅读（共两节，满分35分）

第一节（共10小题；每小题2.5分，满分25分）

阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。

A

 Many of us are used to greeting each other by shaking bands which comes from Western traditions. But because of the COVID-19, a traditional Chinese way of greeting has become popular.

Recently, many schools in Zhejiang, China, asked their students to use zuoyi（作揖）as a way of greeting. To make the body language, one usually needs to bow（鞠躬）at an angle（角度）of 30 to 45 degrees with hands folded（折叠）in the front.

It is said that the body language has a history of over 3000 years. Folding one’s hands shows others that he/she doesn’t have any weapons and doesn’t come to fight.

The rules are different for men and women. For men, the left hand is put over the right hand. But for women, the right hand is on the outer side. However, in some special situations, men and women should both do the opposite.

Many people are happy to see this greeting come back. This is not only a good way for people to stay safe during this special period, but also a great form of cultural education.

21．How should one usually bow for zuoyi according to the passage?

A．Bow at an angle of 20°. B．Bow at an angle of 25°.

C．Bow at an angle of 40°. D．Bow at an angle of 50°.

22．What does the underlined word “weapons” in Paragraph 3 mean in Chinese?

A．机会 B．财产 C．策略 D．武器

23．What is the best title for the passage?

A．How to Use Zuoyi B．How to Fight the COVID-19

C．How to Greet Each Other D．How to Spread Chinese Culture

B

  Have you ever imagined what life will be like in 2060? An international group of forty scientists have made some surprising predictions. They said that in the next forty years, our lives would change beyond our wildest dreams.

Firstly, humans can grow body parts themselves. Dr. Ellen Heber-Katz is one of the forty scientists. He says, “People will think it common that sick organs (器官) can be repaired. It’s just like the way we fix a car.” Damaged parts will be taken away. Scientists could use human cells (细胞) to grow new organs. New technologies like this will also help people to live longer. Within forty years, most people will be able to live up to one hundred years.

Secondly, the scientists have predicted that a machine will be invented to “read” the minds of animals. In 2060, we will be able to “talk” to animals. Scientists say that humans may first “talk” with mammals (哺乳动物) and then other vertebrates (脊椎动物) such as fish.

Our houses might also change beyond our imagination. Dr. Susan Greenfield predicts that when you enter the living room, sensors (传感器) will know you. They will turn on the lights. If you talk to the lights, they will change to the color of your choice.

But what would be the biggest breakthrough (突破) over the next forty years? A number of scientists believe it would be the discovery of aliens. NASA scientist Chris Mckay says, “We may find aliens in space and talk with them.” He believes marks of alien life may even be found here on Earth.

Does life in 2060 sound cool to you? Let’s wait and see what will really happen then!

根据短文内容，选择最佳答案。

24．Which of the following is mentioned in the passage?

A．In 2060, humans may be able to communicate with dogs and aliens.

B．Most people will be able to live up to two hundred years in forty years.

C．The sensors will turn off the lights after you leave the living room in 2060.

25．Which of the following best shows the structure of the passage? (P1=Paragraph 1)

A． B． C．

26．The writer wrote the passage in a ________ tone (语气).

A．scary B．surprising C．disappointing

27．What is the best title for the passage?

A．Life in 2060 B．The Biggest Breakthrough C．How to Live Longer

C

When your town has winter, the earth’s axis(轴) is pointing away from the sun. Your town doesn’t get as much light or heat from the sun. The days are shorter and colder.

Winter and summer happen because the earth is tilted(倾斜) as it revolves around the sun. The northern end of the earth’s axis points towards the sun in summer. You have more hours of light in summer. Your part of the earth is towards the sun for more hours each day. When the part of the earth where you live is towards the sun, you have hotter days. In winter, when your part of the earth points away from the sun, you have colder days.

You have learned about winter and summer. There are two more seasons in the year. One comes after winter and before summer. The other season comes after summer and before winter. Can you name them? That’s right. Spring comes between winter and summer and autumn comes after summer but before winter.

The four seasons are spring, summer, autumn and winter. Spring and autumn are apposite seasons. Which season do you like best?

You have thought about the four seasons of the year. Each season is different. The seasons are made by the northern end of the axis pointing towards or away from the sun.

Your part of the world gets more heat from the sun when the northern end of the axis points to the sun. When the axis points away from the sun, you get less heat. Now you know why winter is colder than summer. The axis is pointing away from the sun in winter. It is pointing towards the sun in summer.

28．What does the underlined word “revolves” in paragraph 2 mean?

A．Moves. B．Turns. C．Jumps. D．Sites.

29．What is the passage mainly about?

A．How four seasons happen. B．How the weather changes.

C．When the earth’s axis points towards the sun. D．When the earth’s axis points away from the sun.

30．Where does the passage probably come from?

A．A film guide. B．A storybook. C．A science magazine. D．A book review.

第二节（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）

根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。

 There are not many nations that can say their national dish has become international. 31． Both are famous all over the world, and both have made the history of Italian food. People have been eating pizza, in one form or another, for centuries. They eat it everywhere-at home, in restaurants, or on street corners.

32． Long ago, pieces of flatbread, topped with mushrooms and herbs （香料）, were a simple and tasty meal. They were mostly for those who didn’t have enough money to buy plates, or who were on the go. In the 18th century, Naples, in southern Italy, had become one of the largest cities in Europe, and it was growing fast. Lots of city people were poor and they were always rushing around to look for work. 33． Pizzas were cut to meet the customers needs. They were inexpensive, used easy-to-find ingredients （原料）, and could be made with plenty of flavor.

It was in America that pizza found its second home. 34． Soon, pizza spread across the country with the rapid development of the city. It was increasingly considered as a fast food. People might like New York-style thin pizza, or Chicago deep-dish thick pizza. Some want extra cheese on their pizzas while others only like vegetables. 35．

For a lot of people in western countries, when they cannot decide what to eat, they order pizzas.

A．Nobody knows where pizza came from.

B．The secret is, almost everyone likes pizzas.

C．Italy has two such dishes, spaghetti and pizza.

D．A number of people refused to eat pizzas in Italy.

E.They needed food that was cheap and easy to eat.

F.In 1905, the first pizzeria, Lombardi’s, was opened in New York City.

G.The word “pizza” came from the Latin word “pinsa” meaning flatbread.

第三部分语言运用（共两节，满分45分）

第一节（共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）

阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。

Everyone admires heroes. When we are asked    36    are our heroes, someone well-known like Yang Liwei or Zhong Nanshan may come into mind. They make a big difference to the world.    37    , there are “everyday” heroes in our daily life. They may not be so    38    to the public, but these common people are also working hard to build a better world.    39    them is Sun Jun.

Sun Jun comes from a poor village. The villagers used to have no enough food. He knew much about the    40    . He learned to    41    food at his early age. When he was a college student, he found that the problem of food waste was more and more    42    . He started to    43    unsold food from restaurants and stores for homeless people.

After graduating, Sun Jun joined a volunteer    44    called Green Food Bank, which was setup in Shanghai in 2014. The purpose of the organization is to build a bridge between people who are ready to help others and those who are    45   . It works by collecting and    46    free food for the poor, the disabled and so on.

Sun’s team developed a phone app. It can show how much food restaurants remain each day. Usually, the workplaces of volunteers are not far from the restaurants,    47    they can just walk there to get the food for free. Then it can be given out in just a few    48    .

So far, Sun and his team have done something    49    to the society. On the one hand, they’ve saved a lot of food. On the other hand, they’ve helped some people    50    . More volunteers and restaurants join them now. The small actions of these heroes can make a    51    influence than we imagine.

Why does Sun do    52    these things? He says, “Thanks to Grandpa Yuan Longping, we are almost no longer short of food. We need to think about how to    53    wasting. There’s a long way to go, but I won’t    54    halfway. It’s just the beginning. We still have    55    to do.”

36．A．that B．what C．who D．which

37．A．However B．But C．Though D．Or

38．A．friendly B．polite C．famous D．smart

39．A．Among B．Between C．For D．Without

40．A．danger B．hunger C．nature D．culture

41．A．make B．waste C．use D．save

42．A．different B．popular C．serious D．difficult

43．A．eat B．collect C．cook D．taste

44．A．party B．club C．organization D．school

45．A．in need B．in silence C．in excitement D．in surprise

46．A．providing B．buying C．selling D．borrowing

47．A．until B．if C．because D．so

48．A．weeks B．hours C．days D．months

49．A．careful B．peaceful C．meaningful D．awful

50．A．successfully B．suddenly C．slowly D．quietly

51．A．worse B．smaller C．fewer D．greater

52．A．both B．every C．either D．all

53．A．begin B．stop C．continue D．consider

54．A．give up B．put up C．give out D．make up

55．A．everything B．nothing C．much D．little

第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）

阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。

  A blind boy sat on the steps of a building with a box by his feet. He 56．(hold) up a sign which read, “I am blind, please give me a hand.” There were only a few coins in the box. The poor boy felt sad.

A man walked by. He took a few coins from his pocket and dropped 57．(they) into the box. Then he took the sign, turned it around and wrote some words. He put the sign back so that everyone who walked by would see the new words.

Soon the box was full. A lot more people were giving money to the blind boy. That afternoon the man 58． had changed the sign came to see how things were. The boy recognized his foot steps and asked, “Were you 59． one who changed my sign this morning? What did you write?”

That man said, “I only wrote the 60．(true). I said what you said but in a different way.”

What he had written was, “today is a beautiful day and I can not see it.”

Do you think the first sign and the 61．(two) sign were saying the same thing? Of course both signs told people they were so 62．(luck) that they were not blind.

Great men say, “In the journey of life, if you want to travel 63． fear, you must have the ticket of a good conscience(良心).”

It’s a beautiful thing 64．(see) a people smiling! And it’s even 65．(much) beautiful to know that you are the reason of a person’s smiling!

第四部分写作（共两节，满分40分）

第一节（满分15分）

  保护环境，人人有责。假设你是学校环境保护社团的主席，请你用英语给全校同学写一封以“保护环境，人人有责”为话题的倡议书，谈谈学校日常存在的不环保的行为，你对这些行为的看法，以及中学生可以通过哪些行为保护环境。内容必须包含以下要点:

1.你们学校日常存在哪些不环保的行为。

2.你对此的看法。

3.保护环境的具体行动。

4.……

要求: 1.字数80一100, 可适当发挥。

2.行文连贯，条理清晰，语句通顺，语法正确，书写规范。

3.文中不能出现真实姓名和学校名，标题和开头已给出，不计入总词数。

Protecting the environment starts from me

Greetings, classmates! I think all of us know that it’s important to protect the environment._______ ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

第二节（满分25分）

阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写一段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。

We live in central Phoenix, near the canal. Every day I used to see a homeless old man and his shabby and untidy dog hanging out down there.

I would tell my husband we should give him food for the little dog. It wouldn’t have been a problem; we have our own “mini farm” of animals! But he would say “OK!” and then blow the idea off because of our business.

Being in Phoenix, Arizona, you can just imagine how hot it gets here, but its winter was really chilly! I had just come from KFC with take-out food for dinner. As I was turning by the canal, the man was sitting on a long bench, wrapping himself with an old brown coat and even older scarf. Even the dog had a worn-out woolen vest on!

Not even thinking more about it, I pulled into the parking lot along the canal and piled up a plate of chicken for the man and his little dog as well as a cup of hot coffee and a bottle of juice. Looking at all the hot and delicious food and drink, he said, “Thank you, sweetie. You are an angel.” I found tears welling up in his eyes! I told him he was so welcome, and then went home When my husband dug into the KFC bag, he asked, “Were you hungry, or what happened?” I told him what I did and he told me I had done a good thing. Since there had been nothing left in the KFC bag, we decided to go out to have our dinner. By the time we wanted to pay our bill, I couldn’t find my wallet. I really didn’t know where I lost it. Luckily, there was not much money in it, and I forgot it at once.

注意：

1.所续写短文的词数应为150左右；

2.续写部分为一段，开头语已为你写好；

3.请把握原文内容，完成续写，使之构成一个完整的故事。

A week later, I was waiting for my friend on the bank of the canal.__________________________

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