还剩5页未读，
继续阅读
河南省南阳市南召县2023-2024学年七年级下学期4月期中英语试题
展开
这是一份河南省南阳市南召县2023-2024学年七年级下学期4月期中英语试题，共8页。试卷主要包含了听力理解，阅读理解，完形填空，语篇填空，补全对话，书面表达等内容，欢迎下载使用。
一、听力理解(20小题，每小题1分，共20分)
第一节 听下面五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。
1. When des the by usually g t bed?
A. At 8:00 p. m. B. At 9:00 p. m. C. At 10:00 p. m.
2. What's the pssible relatinship(可能的关系) between the speakers?
A. Father and daughter B. Dctr and patient(病人)
C. Waitress and custmer(顾客)
3、Which flr des the wman live n?
A. The secnd B. The seventh C. The twentieth
4. Hw will the speakers g t the Shenb Park?
A. On ft B. By bus C. By bike
5. Where are the speakers?
A. In a bkstre B. In a library C. In a classrm
第二节 听下面几段对话或独白，每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第6至第7两个小题。
6. Where is the bkstre?
A. On Renmin Rad B. On Zhngshan Rad C. On Zhangheng Rad
7. Hw will the man get t the bkstre?
A. By car B. By bus C. By bike
听下面一段对话，回答第8至第10三个小题。
8. Hw des Mr. White usually g t wrk?
A. By car B. By bus C. On ft
9. Where des Mr. White have lunch?
A. In a restaurant B. At hme C. At schl
10. What des Mr. White ften d in his free time?
A. He ften plays basketball. B. He ften plays sccer.C. He ften watches TV.
听下面一段对话，回答第11至第12两个小题。
11. What kind f hme des Mr. Smith live in?
A. A twnhuse B. An apartment C. A farmhuse
12. Which isn't Mr. Smith's idea abut living there?
A. The air there is fresh. B. It's quiet there. C. The air there is clean.
听下面一段对话，回答第13至第15 三个小题。
13. What day is it tday?
A. Tuesday B. Wednesday C. Thursday
14. Why desn't Karl like gegraphy?
A. Because he thinks it's difficult.
B. Because he thinks it's bring.
C. Because he desn't like the gegraphy teacher.
15. What subject des Karl like?
A. Gegraphy and P. E. B. Gegraphy and science C. Science and P. E.
第三节 听下面一篇短文，按照你所听内容的先后顺序将图片排序。短文读两遍。
16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
二、阅读理解(20个小题，每小题2分，共40分)
阅读下面四篇语言材料，然后按文后要求做题。
A
根据材料内容选择正确答案。
21. Many families live in the same .
A. twnhuse B. apartment building
C. farmhuse D. drmitry
22. isn't n the first flr in a twnhuse.
A. The kitchen B. The living rm
C. The dining rm D. The bedrm
23. The farmhuse is the field.
A. clse t B. in frnt f C. behind D. far frm
24. If yu are a student in a drmitry, yu can .
A. sleep with ther students in the same bed
B. have yur wn washrm
C. learn hw t get alng well with ther students
D. live in ne rm by yurself
25. Which f the fllwing is NOT true?
A. Peple in an apartment building share the stairs and lifts.
B. There are tw flrs in a twnhuse.
C. Farmers always g t the field by car.
D. A drmitry is a large bedrm in a schl.
B
Hell, I'm Susan. I live in America with my tw kids and their father, Paul. My kids are in the same schl but in different grades. One is in Grade 5, and the ther is in Grade 2. On weekdays they usually get up at abut 7:15 in the mrning, then we have breakfast at hme. They usually have milk r juice, eggs and bread fr breakfast. Paul usually has rice.
They g t schl by schl bus. They usually get n the schl bus at abut 8:00a. m. Schl begins at 8:30 a. m. They have fur classes in the mrning. They have lunch at schl. In the afternn, they have tw classes. Schl is ver at 3:30 in the afternn. My sn likes playing sccer after schl. My daughter has after-schl classes twice a week. Paul ges t wrk frm Mnday t Saturday. And he takes the subway t wrk.
We have dinner at abut 7:30 p. m. We usually eat a lt f different kinds f fds, such as rice, vegetables, chicken, fish and fruits(水果). After dinner we ften watch TV fr a shrt time. My kids always g t bed befre 9:00 p. m. Smetimes they read bks befre ging t bed.
根据材料内容选择最佳答案。
26. Hw many peple are there in Susan's family?
A. tw B. three C. fur D. five
27. The kids dn't have fr breakfast.
A. rice B. bread C. eggs D. milk
28. Hw ften des Susan's daughter have after-schl classes?
A. Every day B. Once a week C. Twice a week D. Twice a mnth
29. Hw des Paul g t wrk frm Mnday t Saturday?
A. by bus B. by bike C. n ft D. by subway
30. Which is RIGHT?
A. Susan's kíds are in the same grade. B. Paul ges t wrk six days a week.
C. The kids have lunch at hme. D. The kids g t bed after 9:00 p. m.
C
My name is Winnie. Let me shw yu arund my hme. There is a beautiful .brwn huse with a small yard. Trees and flwers are in it. That is my huse.
When yu cme in, yu can see a living rm. A sfa and a TV are in the rm. I like sitting n the sfa t watch TV. Sme beautiful pictures are n the wall. A dining rm is next t the living rm. There is a big table in the center f it. On the right f the dining rm, there is a kitchen. I live with my sister, Jane. We live n the secnd flr. Our rm is nt big but clrful(多彩的). The wall is purple. It's ur favrite clr. We put ur family phts n the wall. My parents' rm is next t urs. My favrite place is the study. It's next t my parents' bedrm. I always read bks r d my hmewrk there. It is quiet. A bathrm is acrss frm the study.
My huse is nt very big, but I lve it very much.
根据材料内容选择最佳答案。
31. The underlined(加下划线的) wrd “it” refers t(指的是) .
A. the huse B. the garden C. the street D. the yard
32. There is a between the living rm and the kitchen.
A. dining rm B. bedrm C. bathrm D. study
33. Hw many rms are there n the secnd flr?
A. Tw B. Three C. Fur D. Five
34. Frm the passage(文章), we can learn that
A. Winnie likes the kitchen best. B. Winnie's huse is beautiful and big.
C. A desk is in the living rm. D. Jane's favrite clr is purple.
35. The passage is abut
A. the street B. my huse C. my bedrm D. the yard
D
Smetimes schl life is very interesting fr children, but smetimes it's hard fr them. Then as parents, yu can help them t learn.
Smetimes yur children may nt like reading, then yu must help them with their reading. 36 Let them see yu reading. But hw t help them? Take them t visit the library. Let children read t yu, and talk abut the bks with them. What is the bk abut? What will peple in the stry d next?
After a day, yur children becme very tired. 37 Then yu shuld teach them hw t use time. Hw lng can they watch TV every day? 38 When shuld they d their hmewrk and g t bed? Yu must teach them t d the right things at the right time.
39 It's time fr yu t d smething. Yu can talk with yur children and listen t them. Yu can talk with them abut their teachers and classmates. 40 Yu can als visit the schl r talk with teachers n the telephne. If yu can d these things with yur children, I think yur children will like their schl life. And they will d well in their schl.
根据材料内容，从下面五个选项中选出能填入文中空缺处的最佳选项，使短文意思通顺、内容完整。
A. They may like watching TV and dn't d their hmewrk.
B. What time shuld they get up and g t schl?
C. Yu can keep gd bks and newspapers in the huse.
D. Listen t their interesting things r difficult subjects at schl.
E. Children may think schl life is bring.
三、完形填空(15个小题，每小题1分，共15分)
先通读短文，掌握其大意，然后从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入相应空白处的最佳答案。
Della is 13 years ld. She cmes frm Canada. She 41 with her parents in Guangzhu because they 42 wrk there. Her father is a dctr. He wrks in a 43 . Her mther is a 44 . She teaches English. Della always takes her mther's car t schl. Because she and her mther are in the 45 schl.
It is 46 tday. Della desn't g t schl. She likes ball games. 47 breakfast, she meets her friends. She plays 48 with them. She is very 49 .Ellen is her 50 friend. Ellen's birthday is 51 . S she ges t the stre t buy a nice ty panda fr her. She walks there 52 the stre is clse t her hme.
In the afternn, Della ges t the Children's Hme. She ges there 53 every tw weeks. There, she reads 54 t the children, plays games with them, and helps them with their 55 . The children all like Della, and Della is very happy when she helps the children.
41. A. cleans B. lives C. studies D. wrks
42. A. sme B. all C. bth D. every
43. A. farm B. park C. z D. hspital
44. A. teacher B. nurse C. farmer D. driver
45. A. difficult B. easy C. same D. different
46. A. Mnday B. Wednesday C. Friday D. Saturday
47. A. When B. Between C. After D. Until
48. A. basketball B. guitar C. dlls D. cards
49. A. happy B. interesting C. clean D. wnderful
50. A. bring B. best C. last D. happy
51. A. cming B. ging C. starting D. cking
52. A. s B. if C. when D. because
53. A. nce B. ver C. seldm D. nly
54. A. maps B. music C. stries D. subjects
55. A. buildings B. studies C. beds D. wallets
四、语篇填空(共15分)
第一节(10个小题，每小题1分，共10分)
阅读短文，从方框中选择适当的词并用其正确形式填空，使句子通顺，意思完整。每空限填一词，每词限用一次。
I'm Hu Lei and I cme frm the cuntryside. Nw I'm studying 56 a big city. Peple can 57 all kinds f fds and d all kinds f utdr activities. Peple think the city is s wnderful, Many peple like living in the city, 58 I dn't like it at all. In the city, the 59 is heavy and the 60 f living is high. Many neighbrs dn't knw each ther. And it's 61 , t.
I miss the life in the cuntryside. There, are many huses with big 62 . The air is 63 and the water is clean. We can 64 green trees and beautiful flwers here and there. Mre peple like living in the cuntryside nw. Of curse, I return t the cuntryside t see my parents 65 a mnth.
第二节 (5个小题，每小题1分，共5分)
阅读短文，根据语篇要求填空，使短文通顺，意思完整。每空限填一词。
I'm Sctt. I live n Nrth Street. It is a gd place t have fun. Yu can see a htel, a supermarket, a bank, a bkstre 66 a z n it. It is a very busy street. There 67 always lts f peple and cars there. My huse is acrss frm the htel. The htel is between the bkstre and the bank. 68 favrite place is the bkstre. There are lts f interesting bks in it. I ften spend time there n weekends. If yu want t see animals, yu can g t the z. It's next 69 the supermarket. 70 is als a big restaurant near the supermarket. It is clean and quiet. Yu can enjy yur lunch in it. Welcme t Nrth Street!
五、补全对话 (5个小题，每空2分，共10分)
根据下面的对话情景， 在每个空白处填上一个适当的句子，使对话的意思连贯、完整。
A: Excuse me, where's the Jianye Park?
B: G alng the street and turn left at the secnd crssing.
A:71. ?
B: It's abut thirty minutes n ft.
A:It's a lng way. Can I take a bus?
B:72. . Many buses can take yu there.
A:73. ?
B: Bus N.8, N.10 and N.15 are all OK.
A:74. ?
B: The bus stp is n the ther side f the street.
A: Thank yu very much.
B:75. .
六、书面表达(共20分)
假如你是李华，刚刚搬到了新房子里。很开心有了属于自己的房间。请你根据图片写一封电子邮件，向朋友Jenny描述一下你的房间。
要求：1.文中不得出现学生的真实姓名和校名；2.8词左右。
Dear Jenny,
Here is a pht f my rm.
Yurs
Li Hua
2024年春期七年级期中巩固练习
英语 参考答案
一.听力理解(20小题,每小题1 分,共20分)
1-5 BCACB 6-10ACBBA 11-15 CBBAC 16-20 BADEC
二.阅读理解 (20个小题,每小题2分,共40分)
21-25 BDACC 26-30CACDB 31-35 DACDB 36-40CABED
三.完形填空(15个小题，每小题1分，共15分)
41-45 BCDAC 46-50 DCAAB 51-55ADACB
四.语篇填空(15个小题，每小题1分，共15分)
56-60 in, eat, but, traffic, cst
61-65 nisy, yards, fresh, see, nce
66-70 and, are, My, t, There
五.补全对话(5个小题，每空2分，共10分)
71. Hw far is it frm here?
72. Yes, yu can./Yes./ Of curse.
73. Which bus can I take?
74. Where's the bus stp?
75. Yu're welcme./ Nt at all./ That's all right./ That's OK.
六.书面表达(共20分)
Dear Jenny,
Here is a pht f my rm. There is a bed, tw desks and a chair in my rm. There is a pht f my family and a map n the wall. A shelf is near the windw and there is a mdel plane are many bks n it because I like reading. There is a cmputer n the desk. I play sme games n it after d my hmewrk. A clck and a pencil-bx are n the desk beside the bed. Where are my keys? Oh, they are under the chair.
I think my rm is nice and lve my new rm very much.
Yurs
Li Hua
四五六三题评分标准。
语篇填空题，每小题1分。 凡与答案不符的均不给分。
补全对话题，每小题2分。句中大小写错误，每两个扣0.5分。单词拼写错误，每两个扣1分。答案不唯一。如果考生写出的句子符合英语表达习惯，且上下文意思连贯，无错误。应当给分。
书面表达题，20分。 评分原则：
(1)本题总分为20分，按4个档次给分。答案中关于 keys 如果无相关表达不扣分。关于图片的细节部分，学生只要表达合乎逻辑，表达正确都可给分。
(2)评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
(3) 词数少于80和多于 120的，从总分中减去2分。Hmes cme in different kinds arund the wrld. There are usually many apartment buildings, with many families living there. Peple in a building share(分享) the stairs and lifts(电梯)t g up and dwn.
A twnhuse has tw flrs. On the first flr, there is usually a kitchen, a living rm and a dining rm. The bedrms are usually n the secnd flr.
A farmhuse is a huse with a large yard n a farm. Many farmers are living there. The field( 田地) is usually near the farmhuse, s farmers can easily get t the field n ft.
A drmitry(宿舍) is a large students’ bedrm. Fur t eight students live in the same drmitry. Each student has their wn bed, and they als share a washrm. Students can learn t get alng well with (与…相处融洽) each ther by living in a drmitry.
(4)评分时，应注意的主要内容为：内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的丰富性和准确性及上下文的连贯性。
(5)拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
(6)如书写较差以至影响交际，将其分数降低一个档次。
2)各档次的给分范围和要求
第四档
完成了试题规定的任务。
一覆盖所有内容要点。
一应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
一语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确，些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂语法结构或词汇所致。
一有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。
达到了预期的写作目的。
16~20
第三档
基本完成了试题规定的任务。
一虽漏掉一些内容， 但覆盖所有主要内容。
一应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
一有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误， 但不影响理解。
一应用简单的语句间连接成分， 使全文内容连贯。
整体而言，基本达到了预期的写作目的。
11~15分
第二档
未恰当完成试题规定的任务。
一漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容， 写了一些无关内容。
一语法结构单调，词汇项目有限。
一有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响了对写作内容的理解。
一较少使用语句间的连接成分， 内容缺少连贯性。
信息未能清楚地传达给读者。
6~10分
第一档
未完成试题规定的任务。
—明显遗漏主要内容，写了一些无关内容， 原因可能是未理解试题要求。
一语法结构单调，词汇项目有限。
一较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响对写作内容的理解。
一缺乏语句间的连接成分， 内容不连贯。
信息未能传达给读者。
1~5分
0 分
未能传达给读者任何信息：内容太少，无法评判； 写的内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。
一、听力理解(20小题，每小题1分，共20分)
第一节 听下面五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。
1. When des the by usually g t bed?
A. At 8:00 p. m. B. At 9:00 p. m. C. At 10:00 p. m.
2. What's the pssible relatinship(可能的关系) between the speakers?
A. Father and daughter B. Dctr and patient(病人)
C. Waitress and custmer(顾客)
3、Which flr des the wman live n?
A. The secnd B. The seventh C. The twentieth
4. Hw will the speakers g t the Shenb Park?
A. On ft B. By bus C. By bike
5. Where are the speakers?
A. In a bkstre B. In a library C. In a classrm
第二节 听下面几段对话或独白，每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第6至第7两个小题。
6. Where is the bkstre?
A. On Renmin Rad B. On Zhngshan Rad C. On Zhangheng Rad
7. Hw will the man get t the bkstre?
A. By car B. By bus C. By bike
听下面一段对话，回答第8至第10三个小题。
8. Hw des Mr. White usually g t wrk?
A. By car B. By bus C. On ft
9. Where des Mr. White have lunch?
A. In a restaurant B. At hme C. At schl
10. What des Mr. White ften d in his free time?
A. He ften plays basketball. B. He ften plays sccer.C. He ften watches TV.
听下面一段对话，回答第11至第12两个小题。
11. What kind f hme des Mr. Smith live in?
A. A twnhuse B. An apartment C. A farmhuse
12. Which isn't Mr. Smith's idea abut living there?
A. The air there is fresh. B. It's quiet there. C. The air there is clean.
听下面一段对话，回答第13至第15 三个小题。
13. What day is it tday?
A. Tuesday B. Wednesday C. Thursday
14. Why desn't Karl like gegraphy?
A. Because he thinks it's difficult.
B. Because he thinks it's bring.
C. Because he desn't like the gegraphy teacher.
15. What subject des Karl like?
A. Gegraphy and P. E. B. Gegraphy and science C. Science and P. E.
第三节 听下面一篇短文，按照你所听内容的先后顺序将图片排序。短文读两遍。
16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
二、阅读理解(20个小题，每小题2分，共40分)
阅读下面四篇语言材料，然后按文后要求做题。
A
根据材料内容选择正确答案。
21. Many families live in the same .
A. twnhuse B. apartment building
C. farmhuse D. drmitry
22. isn't n the first flr in a twnhuse.
A. The kitchen B. The living rm
C. The dining rm D. The bedrm
23. The farmhuse is the field.
A. clse t B. in frnt f C. behind D. far frm
24. If yu are a student in a drmitry, yu can .
A. sleep with ther students in the same bed
B. have yur wn washrm
C. learn hw t get alng well with ther students
D. live in ne rm by yurself
25. Which f the fllwing is NOT true?
A. Peple in an apartment building share the stairs and lifts.
B. There are tw flrs in a twnhuse.
C. Farmers always g t the field by car.
D. A drmitry is a large bedrm in a schl.
B
Hell, I'm Susan. I live in America with my tw kids and their father, Paul. My kids are in the same schl but in different grades. One is in Grade 5, and the ther is in Grade 2. On weekdays they usually get up at abut 7:15 in the mrning, then we have breakfast at hme. They usually have milk r juice, eggs and bread fr breakfast. Paul usually has rice.
They g t schl by schl bus. They usually get n the schl bus at abut 8:00a. m. Schl begins at 8:30 a. m. They have fur classes in the mrning. They have lunch at schl. In the afternn, they have tw classes. Schl is ver at 3:30 in the afternn. My sn likes playing sccer after schl. My daughter has after-schl classes twice a week. Paul ges t wrk frm Mnday t Saturday. And he takes the subway t wrk.
We have dinner at abut 7:30 p. m. We usually eat a lt f different kinds f fds, such as rice, vegetables, chicken, fish and fruits(水果). After dinner we ften watch TV fr a shrt time. My kids always g t bed befre 9:00 p. m. Smetimes they read bks befre ging t bed.
根据材料内容选择最佳答案。
26. Hw many peple are there in Susan's family?
A. tw B. three C. fur D. five
27. The kids dn't have fr breakfast.
A. rice B. bread C. eggs D. milk
28. Hw ften des Susan's daughter have after-schl classes?
A. Every day B. Once a week C. Twice a week D. Twice a mnth
29. Hw des Paul g t wrk frm Mnday t Saturday?
A. by bus B. by bike C. n ft D. by subway
30. Which is RIGHT?
A. Susan's kíds are in the same grade. B. Paul ges t wrk six days a week.
C. The kids have lunch at hme. D. The kids g t bed after 9:00 p. m.
C
My name is Winnie. Let me shw yu arund my hme. There is a beautiful .brwn huse with a small yard. Trees and flwers are in it. That is my huse.
When yu cme in, yu can see a living rm. A sfa and a TV are in the rm. I like sitting n the sfa t watch TV. Sme beautiful pictures are n the wall. A dining rm is next t the living rm. There is a big table in the center f it. On the right f the dining rm, there is a kitchen. I live with my sister, Jane. We live n the secnd flr. Our rm is nt big but clrful(多彩的). The wall is purple. It's ur favrite clr. We put ur family phts n the wall. My parents' rm is next t urs. My favrite place is the study. It's next t my parents' bedrm. I always read bks r d my hmewrk there. It is quiet. A bathrm is acrss frm the study.
My huse is nt very big, but I lve it very much.
根据材料内容选择最佳答案。
31. The underlined(加下划线的) wrd “it” refers t(指的是) .
A. the huse B. the garden C. the street D. the yard
32. There is a between the living rm and the kitchen.
A. dining rm B. bedrm C. bathrm D. study
33. Hw many rms are there n the secnd flr?
A. Tw B. Three C. Fur D. Five
34. Frm the passage(文章), we can learn that
A. Winnie likes the kitchen best. B. Winnie's huse is beautiful and big.
C. A desk is in the living rm. D. Jane's favrite clr is purple.
35. The passage is abut
A. the street B. my huse C. my bedrm D. the yard
D
Smetimes schl life is very interesting fr children, but smetimes it's hard fr them. Then as parents, yu can help them t learn.
Smetimes yur children may nt like reading, then yu must help them with their reading. 36 Let them see yu reading. But hw t help them? Take them t visit the library. Let children read t yu, and talk abut the bks with them. What is the bk abut? What will peple in the stry d next?
After a day, yur children becme very tired. 37 Then yu shuld teach them hw t use time. Hw lng can they watch TV every day? 38 When shuld they d their hmewrk and g t bed? Yu must teach them t d the right things at the right time.
39 It's time fr yu t d smething. Yu can talk with yur children and listen t them. Yu can talk with them abut their teachers and classmates. 40 Yu can als visit the schl r talk with teachers n the telephne. If yu can d these things with yur children, I think yur children will like their schl life. And they will d well in their schl.
根据材料内容，从下面五个选项中选出能填入文中空缺处的最佳选项，使短文意思通顺、内容完整。
A. They may like watching TV and dn't d their hmewrk.
B. What time shuld they get up and g t schl?
C. Yu can keep gd bks and newspapers in the huse.
D. Listen t their interesting things r difficult subjects at schl.
E. Children may think schl life is bring.
三、完形填空(15个小题，每小题1分，共15分)
先通读短文，掌握其大意，然后从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入相应空白处的最佳答案。
Della is 13 years ld. She cmes frm Canada. She 41 with her parents in Guangzhu because they 42 wrk there. Her father is a dctr. He wrks in a 43 . Her mther is a 44 . She teaches English. Della always takes her mther's car t schl. Because she and her mther are in the 45 schl.
It is 46 tday. Della desn't g t schl. She likes ball games. 47 breakfast, she meets her friends. She plays 48 with them. She is very 49 .Ellen is her 50 friend. Ellen's birthday is 51 . S she ges t the stre t buy a nice ty panda fr her. She walks there 52 the stre is clse t her hme.
In the afternn, Della ges t the Children's Hme. She ges there 53 every tw weeks. There, she reads 54 t the children, plays games with them, and helps them with their 55 . The children all like Della, and Della is very happy when she helps the children.
41. A. cleans B. lives C. studies D. wrks
42. A. sme B. all C. bth D. every
43. A. farm B. park C. z D. hspital
44. A. teacher B. nurse C. farmer D. driver
45. A. difficult B. easy C. same D. different
46. A. Mnday B. Wednesday C. Friday D. Saturday
47. A. When B. Between C. After D. Until
48. A. basketball B. guitar C. dlls D. cards
49. A. happy B. interesting C. clean D. wnderful
50. A. bring B. best C. last D. happy
51. A. cming B. ging C. starting D. cking
52. A. s B. if C. when D. because
53. A. nce B. ver C. seldm D. nly
54. A. maps B. music C. stries D. subjects
55. A. buildings B. studies C. beds D. wallets
四、语篇填空(共15分)
第一节(10个小题，每小题1分，共10分)
阅读短文，从方框中选择适当的词并用其正确形式填空，使句子通顺，意思完整。每空限填一词，每词限用一次。
I'm Hu Lei and I cme frm the cuntryside. Nw I'm studying 56 a big city. Peple can 57 all kinds f fds and d all kinds f utdr activities. Peple think the city is s wnderful, Many peple like living in the city, 58 I dn't like it at all. In the city, the 59 is heavy and the 60 f living is high. Many neighbrs dn't knw each ther. And it's 61 , t.
I miss the life in the cuntryside. There, are many huses with big 62 . The air is 63 and the water is clean. We can 64 green trees and beautiful flwers here and there. Mre peple like living in the cuntryside nw. Of curse, I return t the cuntryside t see my parents 65 a mnth.
第二节 (5个小题，每小题1分，共5分)
阅读短文，根据语篇要求填空，使短文通顺，意思完整。每空限填一词。
I'm Sctt. I live n Nrth Street. It is a gd place t have fun. Yu can see a htel, a supermarket, a bank, a bkstre 66 a z n it. It is a very busy street. There 67 always lts f peple and cars there. My huse is acrss frm the htel. The htel is between the bkstre and the bank. 68 favrite place is the bkstre. There are lts f interesting bks in it. I ften spend time there n weekends. If yu want t see animals, yu can g t the z. It's next 69 the supermarket. 70 is als a big restaurant near the supermarket. It is clean and quiet. Yu can enjy yur lunch in it. Welcme t Nrth Street!
五、补全对话 (5个小题，每空2分，共10分)
根据下面的对话情景， 在每个空白处填上一个适当的句子，使对话的意思连贯、完整。
A: Excuse me, where's the Jianye Park?
B: G alng the street and turn left at the secnd crssing.
A:71. ?
B: It's abut thirty minutes n ft.
A:It's a lng way. Can I take a bus?
B:72. . Many buses can take yu there.
A:73. ?
B: Bus N.8, N.10 and N.15 are all OK.
A:74. ?
B: The bus stp is n the ther side f the street.
A: Thank yu very much.
B:75. .
六、书面表达(共20分)
假如你是李华，刚刚搬到了新房子里。很开心有了属于自己的房间。请你根据图片写一封电子邮件，向朋友Jenny描述一下你的房间。
要求：1.文中不得出现学生的真实姓名和校名；2.8词左右。
Dear Jenny,
Here is a pht f my rm.
Yurs
Li Hua
2024年春期七年级期中巩固练习
英语 参考答案
一.听力理解(20小题,每小题1 分,共20分)
1-5 BCACB 6-10ACBBA 11-15 CBBAC 16-20 BADEC
二.阅读理解 (20个小题,每小题2分,共40分)
21-25 BDACC 26-30CACDB 31-35 DACDB 36-40CABED
三.完形填空(15个小题，每小题1分，共15分)
41-45 BCDAC 46-50 DCAAB 51-55ADACB
四.语篇填空(15个小题，每小题1分，共15分)
56-60 in, eat, but, traffic, cst
61-65 nisy, yards, fresh, see, nce
66-70 and, are, My, t, There
五.补全对话(5个小题，每空2分，共10分)
71. Hw far is it frm here?
72. Yes, yu can./Yes./ Of curse.
73. Which bus can I take?
74. Where's the bus stp?
75. Yu're welcme./ Nt at all./ That's all right./ That's OK.
六.书面表达(共20分)
Dear Jenny,
Here is a pht f my rm. There is a bed, tw desks and a chair in my rm. There is a pht f my family and a map n the wall. A shelf is near the windw and there is a mdel plane are many bks n it because I like reading. There is a cmputer n the desk. I play sme games n it after d my hmewrk. A clck and a pencil-bx are n the desk beside the bed. Where are my keys? Oh, they are under the chair.
I think my rm is nice and lve my new rm very much.
Yurs
Li Hua
四五六三题评分标准。
语篇填空题，每小题1分。 凡与答案不符的均不给分。
补全对话题，每小题2分。句中大小写错误，每两个扣0.5分。单词拼写错误，每两个扣1分。答案不唯一。如果考生写出的句子符合英语表达习惯，且上下文意思连贯，无错误。应当给分。
书面表达题，20分。 评分原则：
(1)本题总分为20分，按4个档次给分。答案中关于 keys 如果无相关表达不扣分。关于图片的细节部分，学生只要表达合乎逻辑，表达正确都可给分。
(2)评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
(3) 词数少于80和多于 120的，从总分中减去2分。Hmes cme in different kinds arund the wrld. There are usually many apartment buildings, with many families living there. Peple in a building share(分享) the stairs and lifts(电梯)t g up and dwn.
A twnhuse has tw flrs. On the first flr, there is usually a kitchen, a living rm and a dining rm. The bedrms are usually n the secnd flr.
A farmhuse is a huse with a large yard n a farm. Many farmers are living there. The field( 田地) is usually near the farmhuse, s farmers can easily get t the field n ft.
A drmitry(宿舍) is a large students’ bedrm. Fur t eight students live in the same drmitry. Each student has their wn bed, and they als share a washrm. Students can learn t get alng well with (与…相处融洽) each ther by living in a drmitry.
(4)评分时，应注意的主要内容为：内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的丰富性和准确性及上下文的连贯性。
(5)拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
(6)如书写较差以至影响交际，将其分数降低一个档次。
2)各档次的给分范围和要求
第四档
完成了试题规定的任务。
一覆盖所有内容要点。
一应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
一语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确，些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂语法结构或词汇所致。
一有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。
达到了预期的写作目的。
16~20
第三档
基本完成了试题规定的任务。
一虽漏掉一些内容， 但覆盖所有主要内容。
一应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
一有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误， 但不影响理解。
一应用简单的语句间连接成分， 使全文内容连贯。
整体而言，基本达到了预期的写作目的。
11~15分
第二档
未恰当完成试题规定的任务。
一漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容， 写了一些无关内容。
一语法结构单调，词汇项目有限。
一有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响了对写作内容的理解。
一较少使用语句间的连接成分， 内容缺少连贯性。
信息未能清楚地传达给读者。
6~10分
第一档
未完成试题规定的任务。
—明显遗漏主要内容，写了一些无关内容， 原因可能是未理解试题要求。
一语法结构单调，词汇项目有限。
一较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响对写作内容的理解。
一缺乏语句间的连接成分， 内容不连贯。
信息未能传达给读者。
1~5分
0 分
未能传达给读者任何信息：内容太少，无法评判； 写的内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。
相关试卷
河南省南阳市南召县2023-2024学年九年级上学期开学英语试题： 这是一份河南省南阳市南召县2023-2024学年九年级上学期开学英语试题，共12页。
河南省南阳市南召县2023-2024学年九年级上学期开学英语试题： 这是一份河南省南阳市南召县2023-2024学年九年级上学期开学英语试题，共12页。
河南省南阳市南召县2023-2024学年七年级下学期开学考试英语试题： 这是一份河南省南阳市南召县2023-2024学年七年级下学期开学考试英语试题，共10页。
